Kant writes that "If we judge objects merely according to concepts, then all representation of beauty is lost." (106) This is a good example of Kant's main argument about beauty, that it is objective and universal. To be beautiful, an object must possess a quality that makes it satisfy everyone. A person may find it pleasant, but unless this sentiment is shared by everyone, it is not beautiful. Attempting to judge an object's beauty by logical parameters or following certain guidelines of beauty is inherently a subjective process, and carries with it a cognitive aspect that does not apply to beauty.
This ties in closely to Kant's definition of good: "Whatever by means of reason pleases through the mere concept is good."(100) An object is deemed good if it pleases or conforms to our sense of logic or reason, regardless of its aesthetic properties. We characterize "good" through our thoughts and judgments, while we characterize beauty through some other pleasing aspect. Thus an object may be good, or beautiful, or both.
Erik
"I can't remember names...and I always try to do the nickname thing to get out of it. But everyone knows what you're trying to pull, you know? 'Heeeeyy...buckaroo...'"
-Brian Regan
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Does Kant see a difference between judgments of 'good' and judgments of 'beauty'?
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